SBI PO Online Test 2013
Q.151-165 Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Q.151-160. PASSAGE-I Despite the economic crunch worldwide that saw pulverization of some of the largest banking and finance giants. Indian banking houses have managed to show positive growth this quarter. Some of India’s .leading national banks have posted a net profit rise of more than 40% over the last quarter amid global turmoil. This would come as a big shot in the arm for the investors and consumers of these banks even though apprehension is mounting on other banking and broking firms worldwide. One of the main reasons behind the success of these banks this quarter, would be their direct backing by the Government of India. People take solace in their investments in public sector watching the bailout packages being cashed out by governments all over the world to save big business houses. Other private banks in India have also reported a substantial net profit over the last quarter. Gfren the international and domestic scenario one cannot put this down as a mundane achievement. While others are on a cost cutting spree and firing employee, Indian Companies are actually working on boosting staffing in banking and braking’ sectors. This can be seen as a big boon in the days to come when the current recession eases and the economy gradually comes back on to the fast track. The finance minister has assured Indian public about the sound health of all Indian banks. This could also be evident from the fact that there have been no mergers and takeovers in Indian Banking sector in a contrast to world scenario where finance houses are looking for mergers to cut costs on operations. We definitely are not looking to thrive; rather we are looking for growth. It is just that the pace of growth is a little slow now as compared to a yea, or two before. These are hard times to test the hard. The weak in business and career will be weeded out and it is sometimes very beneficial for business on the long run.
151. What according to the author, is the reason for the success of Indian national banks in this quarter ?
(I) Indian national banks do not have any commitments in troubled foreign markets.
(2) These banks can never face financial crisis because of their sheer size
(3) These banks are ready to give loans at a very low rate of interest
(4) The public is ready to invest in these banks because of the knowledge that these banks get strong support from the Government.
(5) None of these
152. What does the phrase ‘shot in the arm’ as used in the passage mean ?
1) Shock (2) Fear (3) Encouragement (4) Anxiety (5) None of these
153.How, according to the author, is the current recession beneficial ?
(I) Worldwide, companies have realized that India is a strong power to reckon with
(2) India is surging ahead of the other companies throughout the world
(3) After the recession is over international companies will turn to India for investment
(4) Recession is bringing down the prices of essential commodities (5) None of these
154. What, according to the author will be a big boon in the days to come ?
(1) The economy corning back on the fast track
(2) The slowing down of the economy
(3) Increased hiring in Indian financial sector in times of economic slowdown
(4) The cost cutting carried out by all the companies (5) None of these
155 Which of the following statements is definitely true in the context of the passage ?
(A) India has not been affected by the economic slowdown.
(B) Indian Banks are showing growth in this quarter despite the recession.
(C) While banking industry in the West was severely affected by recession in the past it is now gradually recovering and showing a positive growth.
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (8) (3) Only (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) Only (8) and (C)
156 Which of the following strengthens the finance minister’s statement about the sound health of Indian Banks with respect to the passage ?
(A) There have been no acquisitions and mergers of Indian Banks.
(B) The Indian Banks are recording a positive growth.
(C) layoffs have been observed worldwide.
( I) Only (A) and (B) (2) Only (A) and (C) (3) Only (A) (4) Only (B) (5) Al] (A), (B) and (C)
Q.157-158. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of ivords printed in bold as used in the passage. TURMOIL
I) danger (2) shock (3) sadness (4) fear (5) chaos
(1) polarisation (2) mashing (3) debasement (4) fall (5) crushing
Q.159-160. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of cords printed in bold as used in the passage.
(1) succeed (2) deteriorate (3) worry (4) tremble (5) strive „
(1) extraordinary (2) regular (3) severe (4) visionary (5) routine
Q .161-165. PASSAGE-II Modern bio-technology, especially the creation or genetically modified crops, is often presented as a magic solution or universal panacea for the problems of poverty, inadequate nutrition and even environmental degradation across the world. Conversely, there are people who present the picture of tech generated monsters and major human health hazards being created by science. Many of the technological changes currently in the process of being utilized in agriculture can have unforeseen consequences, and their safety and future viability are far from secure. The reality, as always, is far more complex than either of these two extremes. Even today the total food production in the world is adequate to feed the hungry of the world, Thu problem is rather one of unequal distribution, which deprives a large part of the population of even their minimal nutritional requirements. Similarly farmers, especially in developing countries. face many problems such as lack of infrastructure, poor or unstable market access, volatile input and output prices etc. that biotechnology does not address, much less solve. It is true that transgenic plants can offer a range of benefits which are above and beyond those which emerged from more traditional innovations in cultivation. It is suggested that such new technology offers more effective pest resistance of seeds and crops through genetic control mechanisms, which also reduces the need for pesticide use and leads to improved yield. A basic question, of course, is whether the new GM technology is safe, and whether this is absolutely crucial since the effects may only be known much later. The jury is still very much out on this matter, and the controversy does not appear to be resolved quickly. The trouble is that most governments in developing countries have relatively low food and beverage regulatory standards, and public systems for monitoring and surveillance of such items are poor or non-existent. This leaves them open for entry and even dumping of a range of agricultural products of the new technology, which may not pass regulatory standards in t I le more developed countries.
Q.161. Which of the following is true in context of the passage ?
(1) Genetically modified crops have been universally recognized as a solution to poverty and environmental degradation
(2) The only way to improve the deficit in food requirement and food production in the world is by adapting genetically modified crops
(3) Genetically modified crops produce more yield as compared to yield from the traditional melkicxis
(4) Taking advantage of absence of regulatory standards, scientists have been dumping new products in the markets without appropriate approval
(5) None of these
Q 162. Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to OPEN printed in bold as used in the passage.
(1) Vulnerable (2) Capable (3) Threatened (4) Uncertain (5) Weak
Q.163. Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to VOLATILE printed it’ bold as used in the passage.
(1) Never-ending (2) Meager (3) Valuable (4) Irreversible (5) Stable
Q.164. The author of the given passage seems to be definitely—
(1) suggesting the use of traditional methods of agriculture as against bio-technology by developing countries owing to their poor regulatory standards
(2) in favour of utilizing bio technology as a tool for alleviation of poverty from the world
(3) urging the policy makers to improve infrastructural facilities so that farmers can maximize the, benefits of genetically modified crops
(4) Unconvinced of the long term effects and rationale for immediate requirement of genetically modified products
(5) None of these
Q.165 Why, according to the author, is genetic modification of crops not an answer to the problem of hunger in the world ?
(A) People being highly doubtful of the long term effects of genetically modified crops, do not buy the products grown by such methods.
(B) The problem 9f hunger in the world is not due to inadequate production of food but due to unequal distribution of it.
(C) Many developing countries have banned genetically modified products as developed countries have been using these countries as dumping grounds for new genetically modified products.
( I) Only A (2) Only B (3) Both B and C (4) Both A and C (5) None of these
Q.166-170. Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank that best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole. (2 it ,t). A controversial plan to build an Immense darn in Brazil’s rain forest was stalled when it .. a formidable bloc of in ecologists and indigenous tribes alike.
(I) resulted, hostilities (2) gained, supporters (3) attracted, opponents (4) lead, protesters (5) drew, proponents
Q 167. According to a recent survey, sales figures of high end cars have seen an __.growth in the past year, which shows that Indian consumers have the impact of recession. (I) unprecedenied, negated (2) unbelievable, suffered (3) unusual, worsened (4) insignificant, endured (5) adequate, proven
Q. 168. The National Knowledge Commission has said that India will have to bring__ _in education if it has to emerge as the most workforce of the world.
(1) changes, biggest (2) reforms, talented (3) alleviation, skillful (4) quality, brighter (5) outcomes, demanded
Q 169 Nonvay has stolen a march over other developed countries by that it would reduce 40% of its greenhouse gas emissions by 2020 and carbon neutral by 2030.
( I) allowing,. turn (2) posing, grew (3) estimating, exist (4) perceiving, arising (5) declaring, become
Q.170 Yu. According to the language experts, children should begin talking in, their mother taiigue rather than a foreign language which can affect their comprehension abilities leading to serious language based later in their lives.
( I) significantly, abilities (2) appropriately, achievements (3) severely, advantages (4) adversely, problems (5) positively, issues
Q.171-175. In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.
Q. 171. (A) instigate (B) enquire (C) consture (4) interpret
(I) A-C (2) A-43 (3) C-D (4) B-D (5) A-D
Q.172. (A) superficial (B) superfluous (C) enlightened (D) surplus
(1) A-C (2) A-B (3) B-C _ (4) B-D (5) A-D
Q 173. (A) appalling (B) sinister (C) perturbed (D) threatening
(1) A-B (2) B (3) A-C (4) A-D (5) D-C
Q 174. (A) imprison (B) torture (C) excruciate (1)) extract
(1) 13–D (2) B-C (3) A-B (4) C-D (5) A-C
Q 175. (A) pertinent (B) impolite (C) irrelevant (D) insecure
(1) A-C (2) 13-D (3) C-D (4) A-D (5) B-C
Q.176-180. Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B),- (C), (D), (E) and (F) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow :
(A) According to it, organized retail stores are not wolves at the doors of friendly neighborhood grocery stores as there is room for expansion of both.
(B) Many have been crying foul over the entry of organized retail stores expressing concern over their impact on small store owners.
(C) The final winner in the competition, however, is the common man who gets to choose between the most suitable options and in turn fights with the runaway inflation in prices of essential commodities.
(D) In spite of this potential for expansion it is doubtless that the small store owners face a decline in profit in initial years if organized retailers set up Stores in the vicinity.
(E) But a study conducted over a period of two years goes a long way towards allaying these fears.
(F) This impact. however, wears off once they learn to take en the competition which in turn enhances efficiency all around.
SBI PO Online Test
176. Which of the following sentence should be the FIRST after rearrangement ?
1) A (2)13 (3)C (4) D (5) E
177. Which cf the following sentence should be the THIRD after rearrangement ?
(1) WA (2) E (3) D (47F (5) C
178. Which of the following sentence should be the WITH (LAST) after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) 13 (3) C (4) E (5) F
179. Which of the fpllowing sentence should be the SECOND after rearrangement ?
(1) A (2) B 13/ C (4) E (5) F
180. Which of the following sentence should be the FIFTH after rearrangement ?
(1) 11 (2) B 13) C (4) E (5)F
SBI PO Online Test
181-190. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been slumbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which best fits the plank approptiately. Find out the apprepMate word/ph-rise in each case. Economic growth figures for the fint quarter of this financial year seem to support the claim that the worst may be over for the Indian economy. The gradual revival is also an indication that the government’s economic stimulus package is
(181). What could, however, upset the positive outlook is the drought which
(182) large parts of the country and its rniortct on overall growth. Even though the monsoon had picked up
(183) the rams received were grossly
(184). There are clear
(185) that farm output, particularly cereals, will fall drastically. Insufficient rain is bound to shoot up the
186) of agricultural commodities and that would impact the economy as a whole. The drought would also
(187) a drastic reduction in rural employment and consumption besides inflation in the pnces of food articles. Food prices have been
(188) since the past few months, and lower agricultural production is likely to
189 the situation. The government has said that food grain from the buffer stocks will be used to keep prices
(190) Subsidised food grain is necessary in these dines, but its effectiveness will depend a lot on the distribution system.
181. (1) impractical (2) ambiguous (.3) falling (4) working (5) weakening
182 (1) strike (2) affected (3) exposed (4) reverted (5) altered
183. (1) unseasonably (2) unfavourably (3) presently (4) meagerly (5) later
184. (1) inadequate (2) enough (3) missing (4) ample (5) atrocious
185. (1) contradictions (2) advires (3) reasons /4) results (5) indications
186. (1) production (2) requirement (3) prices (4) yield (5) labour
187. (1) trigger (2) lead (3) result (4) contribute (5) dampen
188. (1) improving (2) balanced (3) stable (4) increasing (5) decreasing
189. (1) aggravate 121 amend (3) smoothen (4) improve (5) challenge
190. (1) unprofitable (2) futhe (3) maximum (4) growing (5) down
191-195. Which of the phrases (1), (21, (3) and (4) given below each statement should be placed in the blank space provided so at to make a meaningful and grammatically correct sentence ?If none of the sentences is appropriate, mark (5) as the answer.
191. Although information technology has entered the homes, offices and hearts of many citizens of India
(I) India provides the highest number of IT experts to the world every year
(2) many people in rural areas still remain ignorant of its immense benefits
(3) government has done its best by funding research in this field appropriately
(4) the face of communication in the years to come would change completely from the bygone years
(5) None of these
Q.192 While the environment friendly – Nuclear energy could make a large addition to the energy sources
1) experts have a lot of expectations from this cleaner method of producing energy
(2) the government is determined to extract maximum out of this technology in the neat
(3) international lobby has been pressurizing the developing nations tc shift their energy production from coai to nuclear power
(4) the problem of locating adequate numbers of Uranium reserves to run the reactors is yet it be sorted out
(5) None of these
Q.193. _ experts proposed the idea of a common school system.
(I) Overlook:ng the fundamental right of quality education of every child in India
(2) Since the curricular requirements of a rural child is different from an urban child
(3) Based on the fact that difference in the quality of sehoolsacts as a ground for discrimination
(4) Since a large percentage of Indian children are getting free education (3) None of these
Q.194. the soil today is nowhere as rich irk native minerals as it used to be some centuries ago.
(1) As there is a growing consent among farmers regarding limiting the use of chemical fertilizers
(2) As the chemica: inputs in agriculture improved the yield many folds
(3) Owing to the uninhibited use of chemical inputs in agriculture
(4) Awareness among fanners regarding the side effects of chemical farming grew when
(5) None of these
Q.195. As allegation’s of cores of rupees changing hands to permit illegal mining began to fly thick and fast,
(1) Kovel ‘intent ordered an enquiry which exposed a nexus between mine operators and bureaucrats
(2) it caused great damage to the surrounding ecosystem and the environment in general
(3) the officia:s have been irresponsible in failing to bring it to the notice of the court in time
(4) the powerful miring lobby had bribed the officials to obtain permit for mining on erningicalh sensitive land
(5) None of these
Q.196-200. In each of the given sentences select the sentence which would either follow or precede the given sentence in grammatically and conceptually appropriate manner. The instruction is given at the end of every statement.
Q.196. Unfortunately, however, these slum dwellers are looked upon by the society as an appendix causing ills in the urban society. Which of the following sentences would immediately prtoede the above sentence ?
(1) Health officials have been warning the government against the transmission of contagous diseases from the slum areas to other parts of-the city
(2) Slum dweller, not only play a significant role tn urban economy but also provide cheap labour for everyday work of the cities
(3) A recent report suggested that 34 percent of government land is illegally occupied by the slum dwellers
(4) The slum dwellers live in sub human, unhygienic conditions in their tiny shanties and are very often hubs for criminal activities
(5) None of these
Q. 197. However. since the beginning of the nineties, free market forces have been allowed to play for ensuring all round development in Indian markets as well. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence ?
(1) Fs’ t ry of various market fOrCC3 is icrcased the competition faced by the indigenous organtzatbns manifold
(2) The severe shortage of newest technology and products in the late 1980s ended with the entry of foreign players in the Indian market
(3) A major roadblock faced by the foreign investors was the poor infrastnictural facilities which was however overtaken by the prospects seen in the huge market
(4) India had been following a very selective and conservative economic polit..y during the late 1980s
(5) None of these
Q 198. mainly because only two percent of the total farmers could actually comprehend the fengthy procedures to obtain the loan and be benefited from it. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence ?
(1) Many moneylenders have been making the most out of this situation and providing loans lo the rest of the farmers at inflated prices
(2) There is thus an urgent need to make the schemes and policy as simple and farmer friendly as possible
(3) A new loan scheme started by the government a couple of months ago proved to be a huge failure and utterly unpopular among the farmers
(4) This situation can be improved, by providing mediators to corn, out and follow-up of the lengthy official procedure for the farmers
(5) None of these
Q.199. The foreign embassy has put fonvard a demand to the govet.-nment that prosecution may be carried out on a foreign land and not in the country to which the terrorists belong. Which of the following sentences would immediately follow the above sentence ?
(1) Army arrested the terrorists responsible for kidnapping ‘four foreign tourists after a daylong operation
(2) The foreign ministry has offered all possible help to the government for hunting down the terrorists involved in it
(3) Government has politely deciined the request to han dover the arrested terrorists for prosecution outside the country
(4) The arrested terrorists were sentenced to life impri•sonment after being prosecuted by a panel of international judges
(5) None of these
Q.200. This is because most of the institutes for higher lean ling lack the basic infrastructure, trained staff and equipment necessary for the physically challenged. Which of the following sentences would immediately precede the above sentence ?
(1) Many physically challenged people have been p!rforniing as well as other students perform in their studies
(2) The percent of illiterate, physically challenged people in rural areas is considerably more than that in the urban areas
(3) According to a recent survey, only two out of nearly 200 universities in Ind a have adequa.le. number of books in Braille
(4) Although government has been making many provisions to improve higher educatiem India, no attention has been paid to the education of the physically challenged seddents
(5) None of these
Q 101 . What is the full form of the term ‘TWA as used in banking environment ?
(1) Not Profitable Assets (2) New Potential Accounts (3) Non Performing Assets (4) Net Performing Assets (5) None of these
Q 102) Which of the following was selected as the official broadcaster of 2010 Commonwealth Games recently?
(1) Satellite Information Service Live (2) Intoniatithal Games broadcast Services (3) Nimbus Sports International (4) Canadian Broadcasting Corporation (5) Big Productions
Q. 103). Which well known former Olympic gold medallist is Chairman of the London Organising Committee for the Olympic Games?
(I) Daley Thompson 12) Sebastian Coe (3) Steve Overt (4) Robin Cousins (5) Eric Heiden
Q. 104). Which of the following countries has decided that from October 2018 no cheques should be issued or honoured there, and all the payments should be made and accepted in electronic form only ?
(1) USA (2) Russia (3) United Kingdom (4) Australia (5) None of these
105. Virer.der Sehwag was in news recently for missing his triple century in the India-Sri Lanka series by less than 10 runs. Who is the only batsman to have armed three triple centuries in Test Cricket?
(1) Allan Border (2) Donald Bradman (3) Brian Cara (4) Roth (2) Es (3) (5) None of the above
106. As per the findings of the expert group headed by Dr. Suresh Tendullcar a substantial number of people in India still live Below Poverty Line. What is that number in terms of percentage ?
(I) 25% 12) 370/s (3) 41% (4) 47% (5) None of these
107. Virender Sehwag was in news recently for his score of 293 tuns in the first inning of the third test match between India and Sri Lanka in Mumbai. Who has scored the highest r.urr.ber of double centuries in tests for India, (1) Virender Sehwag (2) Rahul Dravid (3) Sachin Tendulkar (4) Sunil Gavaskar (5) Both (1) and (3) oi
108.) As decided by the Restive Bank of India, all the villages with a population of 2000 will have-access to financial services by the end of
(1) 2009-10 (2) 2010-11 (3) 2011-12 (4) 2012-13 (5) None of these in.
109.) Which former Test Cncketer of Australia is the Chief Executive Officer of the Federation of International Cricketers’ Association (FICA) that looks after the interest of cricketers of Test playing countries?
(1) Allan Border (2) Tim May (3) Kim Hughes (4) Tom Moody (5) David Boon
110. During his visit to Trinidad in November 2009, the Indian Prime Minister signed a Nuclear deal between India and
(1) Canada (2) Brazil (3) Saudi Arabia (4) Tanzania (5) None of these
111 Which of the following statements about Indta’s performance in Test Cricket are correct in lighi of recent developments?
(A) The victory against Sri Lanka in third test of the 2009 series at Braboume Stadium in Miimhai was India’s 100th test victory
(B) India is the only country to have not lost a single Test in 2009
(C) India’s score of 726 for nine declared in the first innings of the third test of India-Sri Lanka series at Dralxmine Stadium, Mumbat is its highest total in Test cricket
(I) A only (2) A and B only (3) B and C only (4)C and A only (5) A, B and C
Q.112. The Chief Executive Officers (CEOs) of the APEC held an important summit in Singoi. November 2009. What is the full form of APEC ?
(1) Asia Pacific Economic Co-aperation (2) Afro-Pacific Economic COMIC.: (3) Asia Pacific Econornic Council (4) Alliance for Promotion of Economic Cooperation (5) None of these
Q.113. Which of the following Gulf countries has decided recently that despite the objections ra ;- certain countries, it will construct 10 more Uranium enrichment plants to strengthen its p in the world ?
(1) Iraq (2) Iran (3) UAE (4) Kuwait (5) None of these
Q.114. Which of the following countries was the winner of the Asia Cup Hockey Tournament for it ‘ held in November 2009
(1) India (2) Japan (3) China (4) South Korea (5) None of these
Q.115. The leaders of the European Union (EU) named Mr. Herman Van Rompuy as the first Pie: of the E.U. Mr. Rompuy is the present
(1) Prime Minister-of Britain (2) President of 1/kraut (3) Prime Minister of (4) President of Italy (5) Prime Minister of Belgium
Q.116. Who vras appointed as the new staptain of the 21-m em ber Indian Hockey team for the F1H Men’s Chal a Challenge tournament in Salta, Argentina from December 6 to 13?
(1) Tushar Khandekar (2) Dilip Tirkey (3) Arjun Halappa (4) Rajpal Singh (5) Dhanraj PRIM •
Q.117. Cryogenic Engines are used in which of the following areas of technology ?
1) Atomic Energy (2) Food Technology (3) Oceanography (4) Space Research (5) None of these
Q.118. The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act is now known by which of the following n
(1) Indira Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2) Rajiv Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act (3) Jawaharlal Nehru Rural Employment Guarantee Act .1 (4) Mahatma Gandhi Rural Employment Guarantee Act (5) None of fin •
SBI PO Online Test
Q.119. World Professional Billiards Champion Pankaj Advani accepted the Eklavya award, the h: recognition for a sportsperson in which state recently?
(1) Delhi (2) Karnataka t3) Tamil Nadu (4) Kerala (5) Andhra Pradesh
Q.120. Suresh Kalmadi was ekcted unopposed as the President of the Asian Association • third term at Guangzhou, China recently.
(1) Basketball (2) Hockey (3) Weightlifting (4) Athletics (5) Shooting
Q .121. Which of the following has acquired the theatrical telecast rights for cricket matches of Indian Premier League (IPL) 2010 and 2019 for Rs 330 c-rore recently?
(1) Entertainment and Sports Direct (ES!)) (2) Satellite Information Services (3) Triplecom Media (4) Fox Sports International (PSI’, (5) Big Entertainment
Q.122. Which of the following terms/names is not associated with banking/financial trade in India
(1) Automated Clearing House (2) Provision Coverage Ratio (3) Market Stabilisation Sr!.. (4) Credit Default Swaps (5) Double Fault
Q.123.1he standard protocol of,the Internet is ? (1) TCP/IP (2) Java (31 HTML (4) Flash (5) None of these
Q.124. Digital photos and scanned images are typically stored as graphIcs with extely such as .bmp, .png, .jpg, .tif, or .gif.
(1) vector (2) bitmap (3) either vector or birmir (4) neither vector nor bitrnap (5) None of these
125. A is a computer attached to the Internet that runs a special Web server software can send Web pages out to other computers over the Internet ‘
(1) web client (2) web system (3) web page (4) web server (5) None of these
126. After a user has saved and deleted many files, many scattered areas of stored data remain that are too small to be used efficiently, causing
(1) disorder (2) turmoil (3) disarray (4) fragmentation (5) None of these
127. Which of the following books in written by V.S. Naipaul ?
(1) The Last Hero (2) Bliss was in that Dawn (3) Train to Pakistan (4) A Tale of Two Cities (5) A House for Mr. Biswas
128. Which of the following is the communications protocol that sets the standard used by every computer that accesses Web-based information ?
(1) XML (2) DML (3) HTTP (4) HTML (5) None of these
129. Which of the following is a general-purpose programming language, designed by Sun Microsystems, and well suited for use on the Web?
(1) VB Script (2) Java Script (3) CSS (4) Java (5) None of these
130. This tier processes HTTP protocol, scripting tasks, performs calculations, and pro-vides access to data.
(1) Client (2) Applications/Web server (3) Enterprise server (4) DBA (5) None of these
131. When you install a new program on your computer, iris typically added to the menu.
(1) all Programs (2) select Programs (3) start Programs (4) desktop Programs (5) None of these
132. Which of the following contains information about a single “entity” in the database – like a person, place, event, or thing ?
(1) query (2) form (3) record (4) table (5) None of these
133. Which one of the following is a key function of a firewall ?
(1) Monitoring (2) Deleting (3) Copying (4) Moving (5) None tf these
134. are a type of inexpensive digital camera that remains tethered to a computer and used for videoconferencing, video chatting, and live Web broadcast.
(1) Webcams (2) Webpics (3) Browsercams (4) Browserpics (5) None of these
135. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “‘The Rediscovery of India” ?
(1) Meghnad Desai (2) Romila Thapar (3) Mulk Raj Anand (4) Arnit Chaudhary (5) None of these
136. RSA is–
(1) Symmetric Cryptosystem (2) Asymmetric Cryptosystem (3) Block Cypher (4) Digital Signature (5) None of these
137. Market Research is useful for
(1) deciding proper marketing strategies (2) deciding the selling price (3) choosing the right products (4) choosing the sales persons (5) all of these
138. A ‘call’ means
(1) shout out to somebody (2) a profession or business (3) visit friends (4) visiting prospective customers (5) After-sales service
139. Conversion means
(1) meeting a prospective client (2) interacting with a prospective client (3) converting an employer into an employee (4) converting a seller to a buyer (5) converting a Prospective client into a buyer
140. Customisation means
( I) acquiring more customers (2) regulating customers (3) special products to suit each customer (4) more products per customer (5) a’l of these
141. Modern styles of marketing include
(I) digital marketing (2) tele-marketing (3) e-commerce (4) e-mails solicitation (5) All of these
142. The acronym HTML stands for
(1) High Transfer Machine Language (2) High Transmission Markup Language (3) Hypertext Markup Language (4) Hypermedia Markup Language (5) None of these
Q.143. e-Marketing is same as
(I) virtual marketing (2) digitai marketing (3) real time marketing (4) all of these (5) None of these
Q.144. Value added services means
(1) costlier products (2) larger number of products (3) additional services (4) at par services (5) None of these
Q.145. Aggressive Marketing is necessitated due to
(1) globalisation (2) increased competition (3) increased production (4) increased job opportunities (5) all of these
Q.146. Computers connected to a LAN can
(1) run faster (2) share information and/or share peripheral equipment (3) e-mail (4) go online (5) None of these
Q.147. Efficient marketing style requires
(1) proper planning (2) good communication skills (3) team work (4) knowledge of products ‘ (5) all of these
Q.148. A DVD-RAM is similar to a except it has storage capacities up to 5.2 GB.
(1) CD-R (2) floppy disk (3) CD-RW (4) hard disk (5) None of these
Q.149. The sole aim of marketing is to ?
(1) Increase sales (2) Increase the number of employees (3) Increase profits (4) Increase production (5) all of these
Q.150. Lead generation means
(1) Tips for selling tactics (2) Tips for better production (3) Generate leaders (4) Likely sources for prospective clients (5) All of these
Q.1. if ‘R’ denotes ‘-‘; -Q’ denotes ‘x’; ‘W’ denotes ‘+’ and ‘A’ denotes ‘+’, then– 42 W7R8A6Q4 -?
(1)-22 (2) -168 (3) 22 (4) 28 (5) None of these
Q.2. Mohan walked 30 metres towards South, took a left turn and walled 15 metres. He then took a right turn and walked 20 metres. He again took a right turn and walked 15 metres. How far is he from the starting point ?
(1) 95 metres -(2) 50 metres (3) 70 metres (4) Cannot be determined (5) None of these
Q.3. What should come next in the following letter series based on English alphabet ? CEA IKG OQM (1) STW (2) WUS(3) SWU (4) UWS (5) None of these
Q.4. The positions of how many digits in the number 59164823 will remain unchanged after the digits are rearranged in descending order within the number ?
(I) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.5. What should come next in the following letter series ? PQRSTABCDEPQRSABCDEPQRSABCDPQ
(1) R (2) T (3) A (4) B (5) None of these
Q.6. In a certain code language, chow can you go’ is written as ja da ka pa’, ‘can you come here’ is written as ‘na ka sa ja’ and ‘come and go’ is written as ‘re pa sa’. How is ‘here’ written in that code language
(1) ja (2) na (3) Pa (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
Q.7. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TRIBUNAL each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.8. In a certain code DOWN is written as ‘5@)9#’ and NAME is written as Ii6%3′. How is MODE written in that code ?
(1) %653 (2) ?/463 (3) V05@3 (4) O/453 (5) None of these
Q.9. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters LGEU using each letter only once in each word ?
(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) More than three
Q.10. In a certain code THRIVES is written as SIUHRDU. How is SOULFUL written in that code ?
(1) VPTKICIE (2) VFTKETK (3) TPVICKTE (4) TNRKMVG (5) None of these
Q.11-18. In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III at IV. You have to take the given statement to be true even if they seem to be at varianc from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts. Q.11. Statements :
Some trains are cars.
All cars are branches.
All branches are nets.
Some nets are dresses.
I. Some dresses are cars.
II. Some nets are trains.
Ill. Some branches are trains.
IV. Some dresses are trains.
(1) Only I and III follow (2) Only II and III follow (3) Only land IV follow (4) Only II, III and IV follow (5) None of these
Q 12 Statements :
Some pencils are kites.
Some kites are desks.
All desks are jungles.
All jungles are mountains.
I.Some mountains are pencils.
II. Some jungles are pencils.
III. Some mountains are desks.
IV. Some jungles are kites.
( 1 ) Only I and III follow (2) Only I, II and III follow (3) Only III and IV follow (4) Only II, III and IV follow (5) None of these •.)
Q 13 Statements :
All papers are clips.
Some clips are boards.
Some boards are lanes.
All lanes are roads.
I. Some roads are boards.
II. Some lanes are clips.
III. Some boards are papers.
IV. Some roads are clips.
(I) Only I and II follow (2) Only I and III follow (3) Only 1, II and III follow ( 1) Only II, Ill and IV follow (5) None of these
Q 14.) 11. Statements :
All pens are clocks.
Some clocks are tyres.
Some tyres are wheels.
Some wheels are buses.
I. Some buses are tyres.
11. Some wheels are clocks.
III. Some wheels are pens.
IV. Some buses are clocks.
( 1) None follows (2) Only I follows (3) Only II follows (4) Only III follows (5) Only IV follows
Q 15. Statements :
All stones are hammers.
No hammer is ring.
Some rings are doors.
All doors are windows.
I. Some windows are stones.
II. Some windows are rings.
III. No window is stone.
IV. Some rings are stones.
(1) Only I follows (2) Only II follows (3) Only III follows ( 1) Only either I or III follows (5) Only either I or III and II follow
Q.16-20. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and K are sitting around a circle facing the center. F the right of A who is third to the right of B. K is fourth to the left of B and third to D. C is third to the right of H. E is second to the left of G.
16. Who is fourth to the left of G?
(l) C’ (2) A (3) D (4) K (5) Data
17. What is E’s position with respect to B?
(1) Second to the left (2) Third to the right (3) Fourth to the right (4) Third to the left (5) Fifth to the right
18 Who is third to the right of K ? (2) E (3) G (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
19. Who is to the immediate right of F ?
1) 13 (2) G (3) E (4) Data inadequate (5) None of these
20 In which of the following combinations is the third person sitting between the first and the second persons ?
(1) GFI3 (2) BGH (3) ADC (4) KEC (5) EGF
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true , find which of three conclusions I,II,III,IV given below them are/is definitely true and give your answer accordingly
(1) None is true (2) Only Ill is true (3) Only IV is true Only either III or IV and II are true (4) Only either III or IV is true (5) Only either III or IV and II are true
Q.26-30. In making decisions about important questions, it is desirable to be able to distinguish between ‘strong’ arguments and ‘weak’ arguments. ‘Strong’ arguments are those which are both important and directly related to the question. Weak’ arguments are those which are of minor importance and also may not be directly related to the question or may be related to a trivial aspect of the question. Each question below is followed by three arguments numbered (A), (B) and (C). You have to decide whichof the arguments is a strong argument and which is a ‘weak’ argument.
SBI PO Online Test
Q.26. Statement : Should there be a cap on drawing groundwater for irrigation purposes in India?
Arguments : (A) No, irrigation is of prime importance for food production in India and it is heavily dependent on groundwater in many parts of the country.
(B) Yes, water tables have gone down to alarmingly low levels in some parts ot the country where irrigation is primarily dependent on groundwater, which may lead to serious environmental consequences.
(C) Yes, India just cannot afford to draw groundwater any further as the international agencies have cautioned India against it.
(1) Only (A) and (B) are strong (2) Only (B) and (C) are strong (3) Only (A) and (C) are strong (4) All (A), (B) and (C) are strong (5) None of these
Q.27. Statement : Should there be complete ban on setting up of thermal power plants in India 9 Arguments :
(A) Yes, this is the only way to arrest further addition to environmental pollution.
(B) No, there is a huge shortage of electricity in most parts of the country and hence generation of electricity needs to be augmented.
(C) No, many developed countries continue to set up thermal power plants in their countries.
(1) None is strong (2) Only (A) is strong (3) Only (B) is strong (4) Only (C) is strong (5) Only either (A) or (B) is strong
Q.28. Statement : Should there be a restriction on the construction of high rise buildings in big cities in India ?
Arguments : (A) No, big cities in India do not have adequate open land plots to accommodate the growing population.
(B) Yes, only the builders and developers benefit from the construction of high rise buildings.
(C) Yes, the Govt. should first provide adequate infrastructural facilities to existing buildings before allowing the construction of new high rise buildings
(1) Only (B) is strong (2) Only (C) is strong (3) Only (A) and (C) are strong (4) Only (A) is strong (5) None of these
Q.29. Statement : Should road repair work in big cities be carried out only late at night ?
Arguments : (A) No, this way the work will never get completed.
(B) No, there will be unneceslary use of electricity.
(C) Yes, the commuters will face lot of problems due to repair work during the day.
(1) None is strong (2) Only (A) is strong (3) Only (C) is strong (4) Only (B) and (C) are strong (5) Only (A) and (B) are strong
Q.30. Statement : Should all the deemed universities be derecogniz,ed and attached to any of the central or state universities in India ?
Arguments : (A) Yes, many of these deemed universities do not conform to the required standards of a full-fledged university and hence the level of education is compromised.
(B) No, these deemed universities have been able to introduce innovative courses suitable to the requirement of various industries as they are free from strict Govt. controls.
(C) Yes, many such universities are basically money spinning activities and education takes a backseat in these institutions.
(1) Only (A) and (B) are strong (2) Only (B) and (C) are strong (3) Only (A) and (C) are strong (4) All (A), (B) and (C) are strong (5) None of these.
31-35. In each question below is given a statement followed by three assumptions (A), (B) and (C). An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement.
Q.31 Statement : Police authority cordoned off the entire locality for the entire day and stopped all vehicular movement for the visit of a top functionary of the government in view of the threat perception and advised all the residents in the area to limit their movement outside their dwellings. ‘Which of the following assumption(s) is are implicit in the above statement ?
(A) Police personnel may not be able to control the vehicular movement in the locality and may seek help from the armed forces.
(B) People living in the locality may move out of their houses for the day to avoid inconvenience.
(C) The Govt. functionary may request the police authority to lift the ban on movement of residents of the locality outside their dwellings.
(1) None is implicit (2) Only (A) is implicit (3) Only (B) is implicit (4) Only (C) is implicit (5) Only (B) and (C) are implicit
Q.32 Statement : The apex body controlling universities in the country has decided to revise the syllabus of all the technical courses to make them focused towards the present needs of the industry thereby making the technical graduates more employable than they are at present. Which of the following assumption(s) is are implicit in the above statement ?
(A) Technical colleges affiliated to different universities may not welcome the apex body’s decision and may continue with the same syllabus as at present.
(B) The industry may welcome the decision of the apex body and scale up their hiring from these colleges.
(C) The Govt. may not allow the apex body to implement its decision in all the colleges as it may lead to chaos.
(1) None is implicit (2) Only (A) is implicit (3) Only (B) is implicit (.1) Only (C) is implicit (5) Only (A) and (B) are implicit
Q.33. Statement : Govt. has urged all the citizens to use electronic media for carrying out their daily activities, whenever possible, instead of using paper as the manufacture of paper requires the cutting down of a large number of trees causing severe damage to the ecosystem.Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ?
(A) Most people may be capable of using electronic media to carry out various routines.
(B) Most people may have access to ele4ronic media for carrying out their daily routine activities
(C) People at large may reject the Govt.’s appeal and continue using paper as before.
(1) Only (A) is implicit (2) Gnly (B) is implicit (3) Only (A) and (B) are ‘milli, .t (4) Only (C) is implicit (5) None of these
Q.34. Statement : The Govt. has decided to auction construction of highways to private entities in several blocks across the country on build-operate-transfer basis. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ?
(A) An adequate number of private entities may not respond to the Government’s auction notification.
(B) Many private entities in the country are capable of constructing highways within reasona I time.
(C) The Govt.’s proposal of build-operate-transfer may financially benefit the private entitid.
(1) Only (A) and (3) are implicit (2) Only (B) and (C) are implicit (3) Only (B) is implicit (4) Only (A) and (C) are implicit (5) None of these
Q.35. Statement : The airlines have requested all their bona fide passengers to check the slat.’ of flight operations before leaving their homes as heavy fog is causing imnici is, problems to normal flight operations. Which of the following assumption(s) is/are implicit in the above statement ?
(A) The majority of the air passengers may check the flight status before starting their jounie. to the airport.
(B) The Govt. may take serious objection to the notice issued by the airline company.
(C) Majority of the passengers may cancel their tickets and postpone their journey till the situation becomes normal.
(1) None is implicit (2) Only (A) is implicit (3) Only (B) is implicit (4) Only (C) is implicit (5) Only (A) and (C) are implicit
Q36-40. Below is even a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from faits stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of t passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer
(1) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e. it’properly follows from the statement of facts given
(2) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the, facts give!.
(3) if the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the interdict t• likely to be true or false.
(4) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts give’:
(5) if the inference is `definitely false, i.e. it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or contradicts the given facts.
The deterioration in the overall asset quality of banks – gross Non-Performing Asset:: (NPAs) are reportedly 27% higher at the end of December 2009 than at the end of December 2008 – is not surprising. Any slowdown in growth is bound to trigger a rise in NPAs as more an more companies default on loan repayments. The effect would be pronounced when the slowness coincides with a severe global recession. But for the restructuring of loans permitted by the Central Bank on fairly generous terms, NPAs would have been still higher. Prudent banks th.i• took care while sanctioning loans and then monitored the post-sanction disbursement diligent F. should be able to weather the crisis. But it is one thing to have NPAs rise because of a cyclic ” downturn, it is quite another to have NPAs rise because of policy errors that are entirely with’ the realm of policymakers. And this is what we need to guard against. Excessively low in t des: rates skew the risk-reward equation by making projects that are actually not viable, viable – till interest rates reverse and the same projects cease to be viable ! It is now t‘.1 established that long periods of unduly low interest rates encourage banks to take more A low interest rate regime driven by an easy money policy rather than macro economy fundamentals leads to excessive expansion of credit. It incentive’s banks to take on moll.
in search of higher returns and to misprice risk.
Q.36. Higher NPAs indicate shortcomings in disbursement and folkvw-up of credit given,by banks.
Q.37. The Central Bank always allows banks to restructure their loans in the event of rise in NPAs.
Q.38. Lower interest rate cycle projects commercially unviable projects as viable.
Q.39. Low interest rate on credit reduces the capacity to absorb various unaccounted risk factors.
Q.40. Banks’ NPAs occur only due to economic factors.
Q.41-45. Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below : Following are the conditions for selecting Senior Manager-General Banking in a bank : The candidate must—
(i) have secured at least 60 percent marks in SW, XII,
(ii) have secured at least 55 percent marks in Graduation in any discipline.
(iii) have secured at least 60 percent marks in Post-graduate degree/diploma in Management/ Economics/Statistics.
(iv) be at least 25 years and not be more than 35 years as on 1.3.2010.
(v) have post qualification work experience of at least 2 year. as General Banking Officer in a bank.
(vi) have secured at least 50 percent marks In written examination,
(vii) have secured at least 40 percent marks in Personal interview. In the an of a candidate who sales a the One weak= except – (a) at (iii) above, but has secured at least 60 percent marks in CA or ICWA, the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment. (b) at (vii) above, but have secured at least 65 percent marks in the written examination and at least 35 percent marks in the personal interview, the case is to be referred to President Recruitment. In each question below are given details of one candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of actions based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark the number of that course of action as your answer. You ire not to assume anything other than the information provided in each question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.3.2010. Mark answer (1) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision.
(2) if the case is to be referred to VP-Recruitment.
(3) if the case is to be referred to President-Recruitment.
(4) if the candidate is to be selected.
(5) if the candidate is not to be selected.
Q.41. Kesav Vora was born on 8 it November 1978. He has secured 65 percent marks in SW. XII and 60 percent marks in Ginduation. He has secured 58 percent marks in MA. Economics and 60 percent marks in ICV/A. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past two years after completing his education. He has also secured 50 percent marks’ in the written examination and 45 percent marks in personal interview
Q42. Arindam Ghosh has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the rin.:4. four years after completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60 perccnt marks. He has secured 50 percent marks in the written examination and 40 percent marks in the personal interview. He has also secured 70 percent marks in Sta. )31. He was born on 25th February 1975.
Q 43 . Sohan Majhi has secured 65 percent marks in B.Sc. and.70 percent marks in M.Sc. Statistics. He has been working in a bank as generalist officer fir the peat three years after completing his post-graduation. He has secured .55 pei cent marks in the written examination and 50 percent marks in the personal interview. He was born on 8th July 1982.
Q 44. Neha Salve has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past four years after completing her post-graduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 60 percent marks in both graduation and SW. XII. She was born on 24th August 1979. She has secured 70 percent marks in the written examination and 38 percent marks in the personal interview.
Q 45. Neeta Jaiswal was born on 2nd June 1980. She has been working in a bank as generalist officer for the past three yeas after completing her poet-graduate degree in Economics with 60 percent marks. She has secured 68 percent marks in HSC and 58 percent marks in B.Com. Stir also secured 50 percent marks in both the written examination and personal interview.
Q.46-80. In each of these questions there are two sets of figures. The figures on the left are Problem Figures (four figures and one question-marked space) and those.on the right are Answer Figures indicated by number 1,2,3,4 and 5. A series is established if one of the five Answer Figures is placed at the ‘question-marked space. Question Figures form a series if they change from Ion to right according to some rule. The number of the Answer Figure which should be placed in the question-marked space is the answer. All the five figures i.e. four Problem Figures and on Answer Figure placed in the question-marked space should ‘ be considered as forming Ow series. Study the following question. PROBLEM mamas
If we place the Answer Figure 4 in the question marked space it makes a series which indicate!, that one vertical line is added in each figure. So the answer is ‘4’, Note that if we go by only on, aspect of number of lines’, Answer Figure 3 may also fit in. So you have to consider all different aspects. Now solve the following questions.
SBI PO Online Test